Sunday, December 31, 2023

Stephen implied Moses was born near the Winter Solstice

 Acts 7:20-21
In which time Moses was born, and was exceeding fair, and nourished up in his father's house three months: And when he was cast out, Pharaoh's daughter took him up, and nourished him for her own son.
Which agrees with Exodus 2:2 (and Hebrews 11, this period of time being three months is said three times in Scripture).  Three months separated the Birth of Moses from him being taken in by Pharaoh's Daughter.

But Stephen goes on to evenly divide the rest of Moses life into three periods of 40 years.  40 years in the house of Pharaoh king of Mizraim, 40 years in the house of Jethro, and then the 40 years of the Wilderness Wandering.

The Forty years of the Wilderness Wandering began in Nisan, the Nisan of the First Passover, and ended in a Nisan, the Passover recorded early in the Book of Joshua.  It seems reasonable then to infer all three 40 year periods begin and end in Nisan.

Just looking at the account of Pharaoh's Daughter finding Moses in Exodus 2, there are good circumstantial reasons to suspect this is happening near the Spring Equinox.

So if Moses was born three months before events that happened near the Spring Equinox, then he was born near the Winter Solstice, in December or January.

Likewise, three months means he was taken in by Pharaoh's Daughter at about the anniversary of his Conception. 

Saturday, December 30, 2023

Fast Days becoming Joyful Celebrations

Zechariah Chapter 8 starting in verse 18 is an interesting Prophecy.
And the word of YHWH of hosts came unto me, saying, "Thus saith YHWH of hosts; The fast of the fourth month, and the fast of the fifth, and the fast of the seventh, and the fast of the tenth, shall be to the house of Judah joy and gladness, and cheerful feasts; therefore love the truth and peace. Thus saith YHWH of hosts; It shall yet come to pass, that there shall come people, and the inhabitants of many cities: and the inhabitants of one city shall go to another, saying, Let us go speedily to pray before YHWH, and to seek YHWH of hosts: I will go also.  Yea, many people and strong nations shall come to seek YHWH of hosts in Jerusalem, and to pray before YHWH.  Thus saith YHWH of hosts; In those days it shall come to pass, that ten men shall take hold out of all languages of the nations, even shall take hold of the skirt of him that is a Judean, saying, We will go with you: for we have heard that God is with you."
The Four Fast days alluded to here are the four tied in their origins to the Fall of Jerusalem who's dates are determined by Chronological statements in Jeremiah and Ezekiel.  The fast of the Fourth Month is the 17th of Tammuz, the Fast of the Fifth Month if the 9th of Av, the Fast of the Seventh Month is Yom Gedaliah the 3rd of Tishri and the Fast of the Tenth Month is the 10th of Tevet.

The 10th of Tevet is perhaps the most obscure of these to Gentiles so let me direct you to the Exact Biblical support for The Tenth Month's Fast being the 10th Day of the Month.  2 Kings 25:1, Jeremiah 52:4 and Ezekiel 24:1-2.  

From a New Testament Christian Doctrinal perspective Jerusalem is no longer a single Earthly location but rather the Mishkan is anywhere multiple Believers gather together.

The main point is that the Fast Days are traditionally the Sad days of the Hebrew Calendar.  But YHWH is promising to make them Joyful Celebrations.

Perhaps the last of these listed is the first to be fulfilled?  Perhaps how that day becomes a Joyous Celebration is how The Gospel Narrative Begins? 

A lot of the arguments for Jesus being born around December 25th or January 6th are tied to seeing the Conception of Jesus, the Annunciation and Visitation in the Gospel Narratives, happening around the same time of year as The Crucifixion and Resurrection meaning near the Aviv/Nisan Holy Days.  For example it's believed that must be what Julius Africanus meant when he placed the Incarnation on March 25th, since at the Visitation in Luke 1:41-45 Jesus seems to be already incarnated in Mary's Womb.

Zola Levitt developed a theory about a correlation between the Gestation Cycle and The Torah Holy Days.
I am a little skeptical of parts of it, but the significance of the 14th Day of the First Month seems to hold up.

Gestation is typically 280 days or 9 Month and 10 Days.  So if the First Month of Mary's cycle happened to line up with the first month of the Biblical calendar, the day those days would be completed in Luke 2:6 would be the Tenth Day of The Tenth Month, the 10th of Tevet Fast Day.  And on that day an Angel appeared to the Shepherds in verse 10 to bring tidings of Great Joy.


Right now the Spring Equinox most often falls on March 20th, so if we decide to equate the first of Aviv with the day after, which would be March 21st, that would make the 10th of Tevet December 25th since five 31st days occur in between. 

A January 6th Nativity would then put the start of Aviv on April 2nd, while happening to have December 25th fall during Hanukkah.

Now Ezekiel 33:21 does provide a small justification for alternatively considering the Fifth Day the Fast Day of the Tenth Month, which if that was synchronized to December 25th would make either of the last two days of Hanukkah the Winter Solstice.  And would counting backwards make the Fifth of November the Feast of Jeroboam and Halloween the day the Flood started.

My argument that Biblical Days are Sunrise to Sunrise not Sunset based actually impacts the timing of Christmas.  You see the concept of Christmas Eve came from the Biblical days begin at Sunset assumption, and Luke 2 clearly has Jesus born during the Nighttime Hours.  So it's the night that begins at Sunset December 24th through Sunrise December 25th that is most directly being tied to when Jesus was Born by this tradition.  So if the Fifth of Tevet is synchronized to December 24th then counting backwards Tom Kippur is September 30th making sunset of September 29th the start of the evening of the 9th day of the Seventh Month.  Which would mean Michaelmas could have it's origins in a Christianized Yom Kippur observance.  And it would make March 24th traditional Annunciation Day the first of Aviv, but makes April 7th the Coptic Annunciation day Aviv 14.

But going back to the Tenth of Tevet theory.  If the Day of the Tenth is December 24th then counting backwards that would make Yom Kippur the 25th of September and the first day of Tabernacles the 30th which can also be a theory for the origin of Michaelmas.  And it makes March 20th the first of Aviv.

These Fast Days have their origins in the destruction of the Old Jerusalem and Old Temple of the Old Covenant.  In The New Covenant The Body of Christ is the New Temple and New Jerusalem.

So there ya go, I made a Biblical Argument for celebrating The Birth of The Messiah on December 25th.  One that's flexible even.

Friday, December 29, 2023

Priestley Courses and calculating Christmas

It is still Christmastide so I figured I could make another Christmas post.

The problem with anyone favoring any date thinking they can determine exactly when all the events of the first two chapters of Luke happened by determining when the Course of Abia/Abija served is that all our information on that is spotty.

The Hebrew Bible talks about the 24 Courses of the Priesthood only in 1 Chronicles 24 where it only established that there were 24 and gives each one a name and a number, Abijah being the Eight, it doesn't say for how long each one served or when  And then all Luke chapter 1 itself clarified is that each course has more then one day in verse 23.

It is Josephus in Antiquities 7.14.7 who says they served a week changing over on The Sabbath.  But it's The Talmud Tact Taanith that says Jehoiarib was serving when The Temple was destroyed on the 9th of Av both times.

Even if both those sources are correct there are different interpretations of what implications they have for each other.  Like was there a method to make it so each course consistently serves about the same time of year each year or did it drift meaning Jehoiarib wasn't always serving on the 9th of Av?

And even then there are a lot of assumptions being made by those who think we can calculate Luke's narrative to the day.  Like the fact that pregnancy being 280 days or 9 months and 10 days is not counted by the exact moment of "conception" (which itself isn't really a single moment) but the start of the mother's monthly cycle in which she became pregnant.  And while 280 is the expected standard being born a little early or late isn't unheard of.

However if the Talmudic Tradition mentioned above does go back to accurate memories of who was serving when The Second Temple was destroyed, then it may have also been known to Early Christians who we see even in late chapters of Acts still worshiped in The Temple area and I believe even after 70 AD there was more cultural contact and exchange between Early Christians and Jews then many assume.

Abijah served 7 weeks after Jehoiarib meaning Early Christians would have had good reason to presume the course of Abijah was serving on the 29th of Elul and thus the week of their course with the end of Elul and maybe start of Tishri.  (I'm suddenly tempted to wonder if that has something to do with the 29th of September becoming Michaelmas, but Gabriel would be the Angel to reference for this Biblical Story.)

So based on Luke 1:23-24 they would have felt they had good reason to roughly identify Tishi the Seventh Month of The Biblical Calendar with the first Month of Elizabeth's Pregnancy.  The Annunciation and Visitation happened during the Sixth Month of Elizabeth's Pregnancy in verse 26 which would be roughly Adar.  And thus they would have had good reason to conclude Jesus was conceived in March or early April, and Nine months from that is December or Early January.

Which could reinforce other reasons they might have had to associate Christmas with Hanukkah.  After all Hanukkah is (when there isn't a Second Adar) about 280 days after Purim.

But I do have my skepticism of those Talmudic Traditions, having the first Course listed serving then may have had some symbolic value to them.  Josephus however came form a Priestly family and grew up while the Second Temple was standing so I trust what he says does reflect at least how first century Second Temple Judaism was doing things.

If there was a system to keep them consistent all year, I feel it's safe to assume Jehoiarib the first course would be serving the first week of Nisan/Aviv.  It would take 168 days for all 24 Courses to have each served once meaning Jehoiaiab would start serving again on the 19th day of the sixth month which would be Elul.  But some have theorized the Pilgrimage Festivals (at least the week long ones) would be separate from the Course system since all the Priests would have been present, that would start the second course of Jehoiarib on the 26th or 17th of Elul.

That would put Abijah's first course of the year on the 50th-56th days of the year or 20th-26th of Iyar, unless the Unleavened Bread Pilgrimage festival interrupts things then it's the 57th of Iyar through the 3rd of Sivan.  Five months later that could oddly work for placing the Annunciation near Halloween and the Nativity in August.

However the second Course of Abijah would then be the 9th through 16th of the Eight Month, possibly making the Eight Month Elizabeth's First Month and thus her sixth month either Nisan/Aviv or Second Adar which comes right back around to supporting a Hanukkah or 10th of Tevet Nativity, because Aviv as Mary's First Month perfectly fits Zola Levitt's theory about the Torah Holy Days and the Gestation Cycle.

But as I said before we can't know for certain.  The information we have here can and has been tortured to make any model work.  But two of the quickest conclusions one can come to lend themselves to justifying a near the Winter Solstice Nativity.

Monday, December 25, 2023

Venus as The Star of Bethlehem

I am strongly convinced that the terminology of "We have seen (Observed) His Star" implies a Star that was always there and always considered His.  And that logically as one that moves around it would be a planet.

When The Bible associates Jesus with a star, it associates Him with the Morning Stat in 2 Peter 1:19 and Revelation 22:16.  Which is Venus called Heosphorus/Eophorus(Dawn Bringer), Hesperus and Phosphorus (Light Bringer) by the Greeks and Lucifer by the Romans.

The use of the name "Lucifer" in Isaiah 14:12 is not justified by the Hebrew Text, Isaiah is not in my view describing an astronomical object at all.  The flawed Septuagint began the association of this verse with Venus but even it used Heosphorus not Phosphorus.  I have come to favor the Peshita reading of Isaiah 14:12 as the accurate representation of what Isaiah meant where what we're used to reading as "Lucifer son of the Morning" is instead "Howl at The Morning".

Lucifer is the direct Latin equivalent to the Greek word used in 2 Peter 1:19.  During the 4th Century there were Christians named Lucifer, no one thought of it as a reference to Satan yet.  This is why Latin Hymns will call Jesus Lucifer and then English Speaking KJV Only Protestants point to them as proof as some that the Vatican secretly worships Satan.

I believe Jesus rose from the Dead at Sunrise on Sunday Morning.   The day I have argued in the past that happened, April 9th 30 AD, was a day that Venus was visible in Israel in the morning as a Morning Star.

And my current 12 BC Nativity model has Venus visible in Israel as an Evening Star through when Hanukkah probably happened in December of 12 BC.

Also every year Venus is at it's brightest in Late November and early December, so about a month before Christmastide.

Tuesday, December 19, 2023

Christmas and Hanukkah

The idea that Christmas is Pagan in origin is thoroughly debunked by people much better at that then I am, including YouTubers like ReligionForBreakfast and InspiringPhilosophy.  

The Pagan Holidays that were observed around the Winter Solstice in the BC Era were not Birthdays but if anything usually that pagan god's equivalent to Easter being when The Sun kinda dies and rises again.  Osiris and Horus had birthdays in September and Apollo's was in May.

And none including Sol Invictus were tied to December 25th specifically till 354 AD by which time Christmas being observed then was firmly established.  The Donatists also observing it on December 25th proves that association has Pre-Nicene Origins.

I'm not invested in trying to prove this time of year is in fact accurate.  I consider some of the arguments against it silly and weak, but The Bible didn't tell us exactly when Jesus was born (at least not directly) therefore it's not something we need to know.

What I do believe is that way more early Christian practices had their origins in evolving from continued Jewish practices filtered through certain New Testament concepts then most people realize.  I'll try to talk more about that in future posts next year.  For now though I do think there is logic to seeing Christmas and Hanukkah happening around the same time of year as not mere coincidence.

Jesus observed Hanukkah in John 10:22 so logic dictates early Christians who included that book in their Canon would have done the same.  I suspect the mysterious origins of Michaelmas similarly have their roots in Christian observances of one of the Tishri Holidays possibly via John 7.

Hanukkah is the only prior precedent for any Late Fall/Early Winter religious observance being on the 25th day of the month.  And if when translating customs from a Jewish Calendar to a Roman Calendar you decide to equate Nisan/Aviv with April the first full month of Spring and the month in which the Romans observed their own Barley Harvest festival the Cerealia.  That makes December the Ninth Month.

Maybe Christians celebrating Hanukkah in a Christian way didn't originally identify it with Jesus's Birthday but decided that should be the basis for the Holiday once it's Jewish Roots were partly forgotten?  And/Or maybe they felt there were good thematic/symbolic reasons to associate the Nativity Narratives with Hanukkah?

Hanukkah means Dedication referring to the rededication of The Temple after the Hasmonean Revolt succeeded.  In John 2:19-21 Jesus refers to His Body as "This Temple", so the Nativity events recorded in Luke 2 and Matthew 2 could be viewed as the Dedication of that Temple.  Herod could even be viewed as a new Antiochus Epiphanes in that context.

Christians would have also noticed that if Jesus was born on the first day of Hanukkah then his Circumcision would have been on the last day since it's an Eight Day Festival bringing us down to verse 21 of Luke 2.

Now we know from cross checking with Leviticus 12 that what Luke 2:22-39 records wouldn't have happened till 33 days later.  But since Luke doesn't directly state that timeframe the way he does the Circumcision timeframe, early Christians could have felt justified in associating all of this with still being the Eight Day of Hanukkah at least thematically.  Someone at some point might have gotten what Law Luke was referencing wrong and looked at Leviticus 15:29 instead.

Hanukkah is called The Festival of Lights and Jesus is called The Light of The World at many points in The Fourth Gospel (1:4-9, 3:19-21, 5:35-36, 8:12, 9:5, 11:9-10, 12:35-46) and the Epistle known as 1 John (1:5-7 and 2:8-10), and the Light-Bringer (Day Star in the KJV) in 2 Peter 1:19, and it's even in Simeon's Prophecy in Luke 2:32.  It's called the Festival of Lights because it's tied to The Menorah(Candlestick) which is mentioned or alluded to in The New Testament in Matthew 5:15, Mark 4:21, Luke 8:16, 11:33, Hebrews 9:2 and Revelation chapters 1, 2 and 11 where the last reference connects to Zechariah 4 which is itself often associated with Hanukkah along with Haggai 2:10-23 which becomes Christmas Eve in this model. 

In Leviticus 24 Frankincense (and possibly indirectly Myrrh) are linked to the Menorah and the Shewbread.  Leviticus 23 was all about Holy Days and then chapter 25 returns to Calendar related concerns, so Leviticus 24 naturally could have become thematically linked to Hanukkah.  And of course the Menorah and the Table of Shewbread were made of Gold.  

It's also important to remember that a lot of the specifics of how we think of Hanukkah today are post Diaspora developments (just as a lot of the finer details of the modern Passover Seder are), even the Miracle of the Oil story doesn't show up till the Talmud.  It seems like Second Temple Judaism's Hanukkah was largely just a sort of second Tabernacles, principally it was a time for feasting.  There were no Dreidels yet or giving a gift on each day, and maybe not even yet the custom of lighting one additional candle every day.

Same is true with Christmas of course, most of how we think about it today even as a religious Holy Day wasn't always there.  It's main function originally was as a Feast.

Looking at the history and details of Christmastide aka The Twelve Days of Christmas I notice that Epiphany is the only day after the Circumcision that has any special observance to it, the 2nd, 3rd and 4th days of January just have readings that don't even feel very Christmas related.  The oldest reference to Epiphany we have is post Nicaea in AD 361 by Ammianus Marcelinus and it doesn't clarify the exact day just saying it's at the start of January, almsot like it was another name for the Feast of the Circumcision.  Epiphany also gets associated with Jesus's Baptism in some early references, and I feel it's worth noting here that Gentile Christianity by this time was already developing the false doctrine that Baptism replaced Circumcision to justify their false practice of Infant Baptism.

Epiphanius of Salamis said that Epiphany is the same day as the Nativity, but he represents the more obscure to the west tradition of making Christmas January 6th.

Maybe Christmastide was expanded from 8 days to 12 specifically to obscure the Hanukkah connection during this Romanizing era?

Wednesday, December 13, 2023

Shepherds In Winter

The only real Biblical argument against a winter birth for Jesus is a claim that Shepherds would not have had their flocks outdoors in winter.  These people are forgetting that Israel does not have the climate of Northern Europe or America.
Genesis 31:38-40: "This twenty years have I been with thee; thy ewes and thy she goats have not cast their young, and the rams of thy flock have I not eaten.  That which was torn of beasts I brought not unto thee; I bare the loss of it; of my hand didst thou require it, whether stolen by day, or stolen by night.  That which was torn of beasts I brought not unto thee; I bare the loss of it; of my hand didst thou require it, whether stolen by day, or stolen by night. Thus I was; in the day the drought consumed me, and the frost by night; and my sleep departed from mine eyes. "
Jacob was at this time much further north then Bethlehem, yet he was engaged in Shepherding during the winter.  So using the no shepherds in winter argument calls Scripture a liar. 

James Kelso, an archaeologist who spent a number of years living in Palestine and who has done extensive research there says this:
The best season for the shepherds of Bethlehem is the winter when heavy rains bring up a luscious crop of new grass. After the rains the once-barren, brown desert earth is suddenly a field of brilliant green. One year when excavating at New Testament Jericho, I lived in Jerusalem and drove through this area twice every day. At one single point along the road, I could see at times as many as five shepherds with their flocks on one hillside. One shepherd stayed with his flock at the same point for three weeks, so lush was the grass. But as soon as the rains stopped in the spring, the land quickly took on its normal desert look once again.
Since there seem to have been a number of shepherds who came to see the Christ child, December or January would be the most likely months (James Kelso, An Archaeologist Looks At The Gospels, p. 23-24).
 Also there is Canon H.B Tristram
“A little knoll of olive trees surrounding a group of ruins marks the traditional site of the angels’ appearance to the shepherds, Migdol Eder, ‘the tower of the flock’. But the place where the first ‘Gloria in excelsis’ was sung was probably further east, where the bare hills of the wilderness begin, and a large tract is claimed by the Bethlehemites as a common pasturage. Here the sheep would be too far off to be led into the town at night; and exposed to the attacks of wild beasts from the eastern ravines, where the wolf and the jackal still prowl, and where of old the yet more formidable lion and bear had their covert, they needed the shepherds’ watchful care during the winter and spring months, when alone pasturage is to be found on these bleak uplands“. Picturesque Palestine Vol 1 page 124
 Also note this excerpt from Messianic Jewish Scholar Alfred Edersheim:
“That the Messiah was born in Bethlehem was a settled conviction. Equally so, was the belief that He was to be revealed from Migdal Eder , the tower of the flock.
This Migdal Eder, was not the watch tower for ordinary flocks which pastured on the barren sheep ground beyond Bethlehem, but lay close to town, on the road to Jerusalem. A passage in the Mishnah leads to the conclusion that the flocks which pastured there were destined for Temple Sacrifices, and accordingly that the Shepherds who watched over them were, no ordinary Shepherds. The latter were under the ban of Rabbinism on the account of their necessary isolation from religious ordinances, and their manner of life, which rendered strict legal observances unlikely, if not absolutely impossible.
The same Mishnic also leads us to infer, that these flocks lay out all year round , since they are spoken of as in the fields thirty days before Passover- that is, in the month of February, when in Palestine the average rainfall is nearly greatest. Thus Jewish traditions in some dim manner apprehended the first revelation of the Messiah from Migdal Eder, where Shepherds watched the Temple flocks all year round. Of the deep symbolic significance of such a coincidence, it is needless to speak -The Life and Times of Jesus the Messiah By Alfred Edersheim
I've also seen it claimed by some that Israel is "impassable" during winter, and Mary and Joseph couldn't have traveled south at this time.  But John 10:21-22 tells us Jesus traveled to Jerusalem to keep the feast of the Dedication/Hannukah.  Indeed I take from this passage that Hanukkah while not one of the required pilgrimage days became an unofficial additional one, since it was intimately about Jerusalem and The Temple.

But also as shown in my Magi and the Census post, I think it's a wrong assumption that they traveled to Bethlehem just before Mary gave birth, I think they had been there for months already.

Nativity in 12 BC

 I’ve been slightly off in the past when I mention saying that a Romans census took about 5 years.  I just went by the usual known Census dates and assumed they dated the start of that 5 year period, allowing the 8 BC Census to end in 4 or 3 BC.

In actuality the Monumentum Ancyranum inscription states that Augustus completed a Lustrum in 8 BC, the year Censorinus and Asinius were Consuls.  That would make the first year of that Lustrum 12 BC.  Some translations word this more vaguely, but I think the version identifying 8 BC as when it was completed may be correct.

Now I’ve made a big deal before about deconstructing the assumption that Luke mentions Quirinus, however it's interesting that 12 BC was the year Quirinus was Consul.  Again Luke 2 doesn’t use a word for Governor, but for governing.  The Legate of Syria at this time was Marcus Titius, but he was brand new in the office, it’s not difficult at all to imagine one of the Consuls was overseeing the East.  Especially since 12 BC was also the year Quirinus started his campaign against the Homonadenses.  He wasn't actively serving as Consul anymore by the year's end, but he was still one of the Consuls the year was named after. 

When exactly Marcus Titius was made governor is disputed exactly, 12 BC may have started with Marcus Agrippa still the Governor, but he was an absentee Governor who rarely actually resided in Syria.

Of course given the common interpretation of Luke 2:1-2 saying the Census began during the governing of Quirinus, and the Roman custom of naming years after the Consuls at it's start.  It could be this Lustrum was gonna be identified with Quirinus regardless of when during it Jesus was born.

Some before have argued for a 12 BC Birthdate for Jesus.  They get a lot of stuff wrong (including the common anti December 25th memes), starting with wanting to see Halley's Comet as the Star of Bethlehem.  Since I place the Star of Bethlehem a little under 2 years before Jesus was born, not at his birth, my model here would use the Star of Bethlehem candidate(s) usually favored by 15 or 14 BC theorists, when there were more Jupiter-Regulus conjunctions, and some interesting movements with Venus.  And that when Hanukkah would have happened in December of 12 BC, Venus was visible in Israel as an Evening Star according to Stellarium.  

But the previous year's Hanukkah had Venus visible as a Morning Star.  That year the 25th of Kislev would have began probably at sunset of December 23rd.  And then perhaps the magi arrived in Jerusalem when Jesus was born around Sunrise of December 24th, and arrived at Mary and Joseph's house exactly 24 hours later.  That model would put the beginning of Nisan of 13 BC around the 6th of 7th of April.

There could be more time between the family going to Egypt and Herod’s death then people usually assume.  The word for “young child” used at the time they return from Egypt, can simply mean not fully an adult yet, Mark 5:40-42 uses it of a 12 year old.

Now that goes against some of what I’ve argued before.  I do still believe the Magi arrived in Jerusalem when Jesus was born.  But it might be Herod didn’t give up on waiting for the Magi to return till after the 40 days.  Maybe he wasn’t in Jerusalem when Simeon and Anna gave their prophecies.  He was often not in Jerusalem, he may have been there for when the Magi arrived only because he was there to celebrate Hannukah.

Some think Simeon the Just of Luke 2 was probably a Priest and maybe even the High Priest.  That this date puts the nativity during the administration of Simon Beothus is pretty interesting then.   One of the more overlooked things Josephus said about the house of Simon Beothus is that they descended from Onais IV.

I believe Simeon the second Bishop of Jerusalem was the same person as Simon the half brother of Jesus (in-spite of the early Catholics wanting to call him a son of Clopas).  I believe all of his half siblings were younger, since I believe Mary was their mother and Jesus was obviously her first born.  Simeon’s death is dated to 117 AD, and he was apparently 120 years old when he died, according to Eusebius (http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf201.iii.viii.xxxii.html).  That would place the birth of Simon in 5 or 4 BC.  Assuming they were named in the order they were born, James and Joses were also older than Simon.  So that is potential evidence against my past desire to place Jesus's Birth right before Herod died.

However that date for Simeon’s death may be too late.  Since it’s also said to be while Tiberius Claudius Atticus Herodes was Governor of Judea, which was from 99-102.  However the chronology of post Josephus governors of Judea isn't established as firmly.  The scenario presented makes most sense as being in the context of the Kitos War.

Update March 2024: So apparently most translations of  the Monumentum Ancyranum inscription do not support I asserted above.  So that weakens the thesis a bit.

Herod's Death and the lunar Eclipse

 I had in the past long favored the January 1 BC Eclipse being the one that precedes the Death of Herod.  But I eventually came to feel the mainstream view of it being the March 4 BC Eclipse is correct.

Taken from.
https://www.biblicalarchaeology.org/daily/people-cultures-in-the-bible/jesus-historical-jesus/herods-death-jesus-birth-and-a-lunar-eclipse/
There are three principal reasons why the 4 B.C. date has prevailed over 1 B.C. These reasons were articulated by Emil Schürer in A History of the Jewish People in the Time of Jesus Christ, also published in the 19th century. First, Josephus informs us that Herod died shortly before a Passover (Antiquities 17.9.3, The Jewish War 2.1.3), making a lunar eclipse in March (the time of the 4 B.C. eclipse) much more likely than one in December.
Second, Josephus writes that Herod reigned for 37 years from the time of his appointment in 40 B.C. and 34 years from his conquest of Jerusalem in 37 B.C. (Antiquities 17.8.1, War1.33.8). Using so-called inclusive counting, this, too, places Herod’s death in 4 B.C.
Third, we know that the reign over Samaria and Judea of Herod’s son and successor Archelaus began in 4 B.C., based on the fact that he was deposed by Caesar in A.U.C. (Anno Urbis Conditae [in the year the city was founded]) 759, or A.D. 6, in the tenth year of his reign (Dio Cassius, Roman History 55.27.6; Josephus, Antiquities 17.13.2). Counting backward his reign began in 4 B.C. In addition, from Herod the Great’s son and successor Herod Antipas, who ruled over Galilee until 39 B.C., who ordered the execution of John the Baptist (Mark 6:14–29) and who had a supporting role in Jesus’ trial (Luke 23:7–12), we have coins that make reference to the 43rd year of his rule, placing its beginning in 4 B.C. at the latest (see Morten Hørning Jensen, “Antipas—The Herod Jesus Knew,” BAR, September/October 2012).
Thus, Schürer concluded that “Herod died at Jericho in B.C. 4, unwept by those of his own house, and hated by all the people.”
Jeroen H.C. Tempelman
New York, New York
While I know you can play games on how to reckon what Josephus said of the length of Herod's reign.  The argument that the reigns of Antipas and Archelus must have included Co-Regencies simply doesn't work.  The death of Antipater is synchronized to the Death of Herod, Herod died 5 days later.  So you can't move Herod's death to a later year but keep Antipater's in 4 BC as I've seen some but not all 1 BC arguments do.  It was after Antipater died that Herod changed his will to the arrangement that wound up happening.

The reference connecting the Eclipse to a Fast has been used by 1 BC and September 5 BC advocates to support making it Yom Kippur.  This connects to a desire to see any unspecified Fast as Yom Kippur even though that day isn't stickily a Fast day though it's popular to Fast on it, and is not even the main fast day of it's own month. (that would be Yom Gedlaiah, the third of Tishri).

Here is the thing I've noticed that even most arguing for the March 4 BC Eclipse overlook.  What Josephus says is that the Eclipse of the Moon happened the night the Fast day ended, no gap.

First in case you didn't know, Jewish days begin and end at Sunset, or at least it's presumed they already were in the time of Herod.

Second the Biblical New Moon/Rosh Codesh is the first visible crescent, not the day the Moon is invisible.  So Full Moons (the only day a Lunar Eclipse can happen) are the 14th day of each Hebrew Month, not the 15th as the Blood Moon theorists claimed.

In other words, this Fast must have been the Thirteenth day of it's Hebrew Month. So that doesn't fit Yom Kippur which is the 10th, or any of the 4 major Fast days linked to the first Fall of Jerusalem which are the 9th, 17th, 3rd and 10th days of their months.

The only Jewish Fast day we know of that was being kept at that time that would have been the 13th day of the Month, was the Fast of Esther, which is the 13th of Adar, the day before Purim.  Meaning this Full Moon was Purim, meaning of the 4 lunar eclipses considered likely, only March 4 BC fits.

Now I should mention that since I and others have seen "Blood Moons" on Full Moons that neither Stelarium or other Astronomers recognize as such (like in August of 2015).  I'm not confident the Eclipse Josephus mentioned can be identified by any modern means at all.  But either way it must be a 14th day of a Month and of known Fasts only Adar has one on the 13th.

Now the argument still remains that one month between the Eclipse and Passover doesn't quite seem enough for everything Josephus says happened.  It could be there was a Second Adar (Modern Rabbinic Judaism observes Purim in 2nd Adar but the Biblical reckoning favored by Kariates which may have still been the one used at this time clearly defines it as in the 12th Month which second Adar wouldn't be).  Or maybe all these events caused Passover to be pushed back to Second Passover.  Or maybe Josephus who sometimes was less chronological then you'd expect wasn't putting as much in that time-frame as we think.

Some have calculated 20 or 21 days from the Death of Herod till Passover.  Which could put the Death of Herod on the 25th of Adar, same day traditionally viewed as the Death of Nebuchadnezzar (Jeremiah 52:31).

The main reason why many Christians regardless of what day of the year they favor feel the need to push Herod's death later is assumptions that I feel are mistaken about what we're told in Luke 3.

 Another factor is a desire to affiliate the Census of Luke 2 with a 3 or 2 BC Oath of Obedience to Augustus, which I'd supported myself in the past.  But I now just focus on that the main Imperial Censusus Augustus ordered.

Returning to the Eclipse in question.  The argument for the Fast being Yom Kippur is the emphasis on the High Priest having duties that day.  As the Jewish Encyclopedia says.  While Yom Kippur is the busiest day of the year for the High Priest, it's not the only day he has responsibilities.  At any-rate if Josephus was exaggerating when he made it sound like the Eclipse was the very next day, which is what you'd have to argue for it to be Yom Kippur, then the statement mostly becomes chronologically useless.  If it was Yom Kippur then it still must have been the next full moon which makes only the September 15 5 BC fit in which case the next Passover is still the same Passover.

Thursday, December 7, 2023

The Protestant Work Ethic is a Nonsense Theory on many Levels

 And honestly I feel embarrassed that I ceded more ground to it then I ever should have in the Capitalism is Atheistic in Nature post

It began mostly as a Correlation Equals Causation Fallacy.  Decades ago both Anti and Pro Capitalists tended to casually think of about 1500 as the end of the Middle Ages and thus say the Economic Developments that would eventually be called Capitalism and the Protestant Reformation started at about the same time and in about the same places.

However as far as the history of Capitalism goes that timeline is long outdated.  Scholars and Historians have firmly documented that Decentralized Free Market Capitalism had been emerging in The Netherlands and maybe also Switzerland for centuries already before Martín Luther was born. Meanwhile Mercantile Capitalism was being practiced by Italian Sea Faring City-States like most notably Venice for even longer then that.

Medieval Origins of Capitalism in The Netherlands by Bas van Bavel
Pioneers of Capitalism The Netherlands 1000-1800  by Maarten Prak and Jan van Zanden
The Dutch Roots of Capitalism by Edwin an De Haar
Why Was Venice the Spring of Capitalism?

Now one can also argue that there was Protestantism already before 1500 as well, but it was not in the same places.  On that subject we're talking about the Waldenses of Lyon and Piedmont, the Lollards of England and the Hussites in Bohemia.  And it was only the last group that ever took over and became the ruling religion, and among the Husites of Bohemia the only ones that ever considered trying to Socio-Economically rework society in the wake of this Religious Reformation were the Taborite who were Anarcho-Communists.  There was also an Anarcho-Communist tendency among the Lollards represented by John Ball.

But even back when the correlation seemed to be true I'd still say the Protestantism caused Capitalism idea was dumb logic.  This was an era when much of Europe was ready to try new ideas, some were good ideas and some were bad, but certain places were more ready then others. Martín Luther however was firmly in bed with the established Feudal Aristocracy of northern and eastern Germany.  

The Protestant Reformation was founded upon Martin Luther's hyper face value reading of Romans 3:27-28 that is often simplified and paraphrased as "Justified by Faith Alone apart from Works".  Because of that in the Protestant mind Work is a Dirty Word.

I've watched Moon Channel's Video on the Protestant Work Ethic and seen other BreadTube videos that mention it.  It often seems to be more specifically Calvinism.  That because of the Predestination Theology people become obsessed with proving their Salvation by their hard Work.

1. Calvin like most followers of Augustine held the view that it's impossible to know who is "truly saved" or not.

2. When Protestant Christians do talk about Works as Evidence of Faith they mean morality in general, those Romans verses treat the word "work" as interchangeable with "deeds of the law" as in The Torah.  Labor and economic productivity was not the point at all.

3. Economic Liberalism, The Justifying Ideology of Modern Capitalism, is founded upon a belief in Free Will and Individualism while Calvinism's emphasis on Election creates a far more Collectivist mindset.  But unfortunately not the good kind of Collectivism.

4. Among American Evangelicals, the ones actually creating the Video Games people usually mean by "Christian Video Games" proper Calvinism is kind of rare actually, with either Arminianism, Free Grace Eternal Security or Hypergrace being more common.  Hypergrace as a product of the Charismatic Movement is tied to the Prosperity Gospel, it is the final form of Protestantism being molded by Capitalism, not the other way around.  Hypergrace may be the subject of it's own post on this blog someday.   Prosperity Theology has it's roots in Wesleyan Methodism and Free-Will Baptists like Russel Conwell, E.W. Kenyon and Oral Roberts, so more Arminian then Calvinist.

"How was The Netherlands able to be Calvinist and Capitalist at the same time for so long then" you may ask.  The simple answer is they separated their civil values from their spiritual values.  It actually took till the late 19th Century for people who are both Christians and Capitalists to start arguing they inherently go together.  And then Cold War Propaganda under Eisenhour cemented the marriage.

The secular development of the early modern period that the Reformation does deserve credit for is the return of Democracy to Western Society.  Something I already argued for elsewhere.  
And among what I talk about there is how quickly Communist ideas popped up among these same Congregationalist Democratically inclined Reformers.

Liberals and Libertarians and American Conservatives love to claim Capitalism and Democracy are inherently inseparable, but we Leftists should know it's really the opposite.  

But too many still want to concede "Parliamentary Democracy" to Capitalism, Marxist-Leninists and others who use "Reformism" as a dirty word abuse what Karl Marx meant by "Bourgeoise Democracy".  As Tristam Pratorius The Social Democrat explains in their articles defending Kautsky and Bernstein (I support Kautsky but not Bernstein so much) when Marx and Engles used similar language it was literal, in most of Europe back then literally only Property Owners could vote.  It was never meant to imply that Communists should abandon everything a Liberal recognizes as Democratic.

Monday, December 4, 2023

Zion, The City of David wasn't Jerusalem

In 2 Samuel 5:7 and 1 Chronicles 11:5, the word "Nevertheless" in the KJV is not based on a word in the Hebrew text.

Young's Literal Translation of 2 Samuel 5:6-10.
 6 And the king goeth, and his men, to Jerusalem, unto the Jebusite, the inhabitant of the land, and they speak to David, saying, `Thou dost not come in hither, except thou turn aside the blind and the lame;' saying, `David doth not come in hither.'

7 And David captureth the fortress of Zion, it [is] the city of David.

8 And David saith on that day, `Any one smiting the Jebusite, (let him go up by the watercourse), and the lame and the blind -- the hated of David's soul,' -- because the blind and lame say, `He doth not come into the house.'

9 And David dwelleth in the fortress, and calleth it -- City of David, and David buildeth round about, from Millo and inward,

10 and David goeth, going on and becoming great, and Jehovah, God of Hosts, [is] with him.
From Benton's Septuagint Translation of 2 Samuel 5:6-10.
6And David and his men, departed to Jerusalem, to the Jebusite that inhabited the land: and it was said to David, Thou shalt not come in hither: for the blind and the lame withstood him, saying, David shall not come in hither. 7And David took first the hold of Sion: this is the city of David. 8And David said on that day, Every one that smites the Jebusite, let him attack with the dagger both the lame and the blind, and those that hate the soul of David. Therefore they say, The lame and the blind shall not enter into the house of the Lord. 9And David dwelt in the hold, and it was called the city of David, and he built the city itself round about from the citadel, and he built his own house. 10And David advanced and became great, and the Lord Almighty was with him.
An argument can be made that the account of how Jerusalem came under David's control (2 Samuel 5:6-9 and 1 Chronicles 11:4-8) makes more sense if Jebus and "Zion which is the City of David" are separate cities.  And this fits later references to the two locations in the time of Solomon also, The Ark was brought out of the City of David to The Temple, and likewise the Daughter of Pharaoh was brought out of the City of David to Solomon's house.  It looks like after the Jebusites chose to resist, David simply chose the fortress of Zion to be the base of his campaign against Jebus.

It might be that Jerusalem is sometimes used broadly of an entire district, but when used specifically of a single City it's just Jebus.  Some references to Jerusalem and Zion in the same verse often taken to verify their being synonymous, can also work as listing separate cities side by side.  Like Isaiah 64:10 which says cities, plural, then lists Jerusalem and Zion.  But since Zion also arguably has both a poetic broader application and a more specific one, perhaps it fits when paired with Jerusalem, two names that refer to different specific cities but basically the same area when applied broadly.  Psalm 76:2 also makes sense as referring to Salem and Zion as separate cities.

It's possible sometimes Jerusalem and Zion are paired together to represent the two tribes of the Southern Kingdom, Benjamin and Judah, Psalm 78:68 says Zion is a mount of Judah, and we all know Jerusalem was in Benjamin.  Which can in turn be taken back more broadly to represent both wives of Jacob, Benjamin from Rachel and Judah from Leah.

And perhaps David's plan for this area was similar in intent to the original plan for Washington DC, taking parts of both Maryland and Virginia to create a capital District.  Isaiah 24:23 refers to YHWH ruling in Zion and in Jerusalem, as if they are separate.

One question that might pop into your mind from the idea of separating Jerusalem from the City of David is, which city then is Ariel in Isaiah 29?  "Where David dwelt" could apply to both but arguably fits the City of David better, and Zion is mentioned explicitly.  Also Ariel means "Lion of God", that fits it being a Judean rather then Benjamite city, as Judah is the Lion in Genesis 49.  Other tribes (Gad and Dan) are associated with Lions elsewhere (Deuteronomy 33), but not Benjamin.

I think the house David built with materials provided by Hiram of Tyre was in Jebus/Jerusalem, where he lived and had children with his wives from Jerusalem, and that could be the same archeological site it's usually associated with.   But the Fort of Zion was in the City of David.

Ophel is a word some use as a geographical indicator, it however is a term for a place many cities had.  Samaria also had an Ophel mentioned in 2 Kings 5:24, which the KJV translated "tower". 2 Chronicles 33:14 says the City of David had an Ophel while reminding us the City of David was in Judah.  And 2 Chronicles 27:3 connects one to the House of YHWH.

Only 2 Chronicles 1:4 says David pitched a Tent for the Ark in Jerusalem rather then Zion or the City of David.  First off the books of Chronicles probably entered their final form later, so a broader definition of what qualifies as Jerusalem may make more sense there.  But also it may just be skipping a step, II Samuel 15:24-29 is when The Ark first comes to Jerusalem.

I think Jerusalem is often what's called the Daughter of Zion or Daughter of Sion. But "daughter of ____" can sometimes refer to a separate City that is related in some way.  Like Tyre being the Daughter of Sidon/Zidon in Isaiah 23:12.  And the Daughter of Babylon I think is likely Hammurabi/Nebuchadnezzar's Babylon, the daughter of the original Babel.  Likewise the "Daughter of Jerusalem" may refer to the post Captivity Jerusalem more so then the Old City/Jebus.  But not always, sometimes the "Daughter of _____" just refers to the population of the city, which is why it can also refer to some of that place's population dwelling somewhere else, descendants of David living in Jerusalem made it a daughter of Zion.

Or the Daughter of Jerusalem and Daughter of Zion can be the same daughter since ya know most daughters have two parents.  I'm inclined to think of Jerusalem as her mother and Zion her father.  1 Chronicles 9:3 says that the population of Jerusalem included people of Judah, Benjamin, Ephraim and Manasseh, so that's descendants of Judah and Rachel.

What about all those statements from the Prophets and Psalms that seem to place The Temple on Zion?   Well the Prophets are being Prophetic and the Psalms are either also Prophetic and/or Davidic ones that are about David's Tabernacle which was in the City of David.  Psalm 132 seems to tell us the place of David's Tabernacle was where he meant for The Temple to be built.  Stephen in Acts 7:45-49 seems to be implying Solomon's Temple did not follow David's intent.  Many Prophetic references are explicitly about restoring the Tabernacle of David not Solomon's Temple, like Acts 15:16.  My post  on Ezekiel's Temple talked about how the eschatological Temple may really be a Tabernacle.

The New Testament only seems to use Sion and Jerusalem synonymously in Hebrews 12:22 where Paul is commonly viewed as speaking of a Heavenly Jerusalem not a terrestrial location.  But even there they could make sense as different terrestrial locations that are linked Spiritually.

The City we usually call Jerusalem I feel is obviously the Jerusalem of The Gospels & Acts and thus the Jebus of the Hebrew Bible.  Where Solomon and Zerubabel/Herod's Temples were built.  So where then is the City of David and Mount Zion?

1 Samuel 20:6 when speaking of David refers to Bethlehem as "his city", that predates the exact phrase "City of David' ever occurring, it is the context that phrase is referencing back to.  When you think about it this should always have been obvious, the hometown of David is the City of David.  To go back to a previous point, Bethlehem was in Judah.  Bethlehem is the city he was born and raised in, where his father owned land, where his forefather Boaz redeemed the land of his kinsman for their widows Naomi and Ruth.

If you object, "David had to capture his own home town?" remember what I said above, in my reading Zion didn't need to be captured, it was the base of operations for capturing Jebus.  But David being born there also doesn't necessarily mean it wasn't politically under Jebusite control at first.  

Of course if you support the revised chronology of David Rohl who identified the Hapiru with David and his followers, Abdi-Heba the Jebusite King of Jerusalem explicitly refers to the Hapiru who were bothering him taking Bethlehem.

Bethlehem is also in a mountainous region, in fact it's elevated higher then Jerusalem. 

It's interesting to note that the Crusaders also captured Bethlehem first, Godfrey sent Tancred to take it, then they used it as a base in their siege of Jerusalem. Lots of people overlook this detail of the First Crusade, Extra Credits treats it like a random distraction, but once you're aware of how Bethlehem is elevated higher then Jerusalem, you realize it is ideal to secure that area first if you want to siege Jerusalem.  Another interesting Crusader era fact is that the first two Kings of Jerusalem were crowned in Bethlehem.

Now you may ask "If David was just gonna make his hometown in Judah a capital why not do that from the start?  Why use Hebron for seven years?"  

When he only ruled Judah he ruled from Hebron since using any city but what had always been the regional/tribal capital of Judah would have been an insult to Hebron.  But once Ishbosheth and Abner were dead and he truly started claiming all of Israel, choosing capitals closer to the border between Benjamin and Judah was the logical choice while still allowing Hebron to be an important regional capital.

Isaiah 29 is a prophesy that Ariel/Zion would be completely destroyed.  This happened during the Samaritan revolt of 529-31 AD where even the original Church of the Nativity was destroyed, Justinian rebuilt the Church of the Nativity later.  More destruction came to Bethlehem in the Persian invasion of 614 AD.  

Psalm 132 mentions Ephratah in a context that seems to place the Tabernacle and The Ark there.  And it is a Davidic Psalm.  The City of David housed the Tabernacle of David and The Ark during most of David's reign.  And that Psalm also uses the name Zion.  This is BTW the only Psalm to mention the Ark.  Most people don't think the Tabernacle of David was ever called a Mishkan but that's because they overlook Psalm 132 which uses Mishkan.  Bread is also mentioned in Psalm 132, Bethlehem means "house of bread".

Micah 5:2 is the key Prophecy that The Messiah would be born in Bethlehem.  But remember the Chapter divisions were not in the original text, and Micah 5 does sound like it's starting in the middle of something.  Micah mentions Zion repeatedly, particularly in chapter 4.

The first time Bethlehem is mentioned it is home to the Tower of Edar in Genesis 35:20-21.  Micah 4:8 refers to the Tower of Edar (Tower of The Flock in the KJV) as the Stronghold of Zion.  Then later refers to Jerusalem arguably as a separate city.  Some traditions say it was from the Migdol Eder that the Angel announced the Birth of Jesus to the Shepherds.  The word translated stronghold in this verse is Ophel.

The death of Rachel and birth of Benjamin is traditionally assumed to have been in Bethlehem.  But many have read Genesis 35 more carefully as saying the birth of Benjamin, Death of Rachel and her Burial were on the way to Ephratah and the Migdal Eder from Bethel.

If so that makes it likely these events happened in land later allotted to Benjamin.  As the only of the 12 sons born in the Land, perhaps it makes sense he'd be allotted his birth place. 2 Samuel 10:2 refers to her Tomb as being in Benjamin.  And there are traditions saying it is specifically in Ramah, which could be relevant to the "Voice Crieth from Ramah" Prophecy of Jeremiah 31:15 quoted in Matthew 2.

As far as my citing it as evidence of Bethlehem being Zion.  I note that this argument observed that after these events Jacob traveled past the Migdal Eder and set up a Tent.  Perhaps this Tent was where the Tabernacle of David was later sent up?  Maybe that is the origin of the site popularly viewed as Rachel's Tomb today?

That makes it further notable then how Psalm 87 refers to Zion as a place notable for being where people are born, both David and Jesus. Isaiah 59:20 quoted in Romans 11:26 says the Messiah will come out of Zion, and Psalm 110:2 agrees.  Jesus can't in any way be said to come from Jerusalem, Jerusalem is always a place He goes to, and only seems to be there for Festivals or other events where The Law required Him to be there.  Jesus came out of Bethlehem.

I've actually seen people attempt to argue the Migdal Eder/Edar was in Jerusalem not Bethlehem.  So leaving aside that Micah 5 and 4 are clearly the same prophecy, and the Migdal Eder is clearly associated with the Birthplace of the Messiah as much as Bethlehem is.  Joshua 15:21 refers to a location in Judah's allotment as Eder/Edar, this geography chapter doesn't mention the names of Bethlehem or Ephratah.  Genesis mentions the names of Bethlehem and Ephratah prophetically or as an editorial note, Eder/Edar was clearly the most ancient name for this area.  Eder/Edar means flock and no doubt refers to this being an area where shepherds tended their flocks.

2 Samuel 2:32 says David's nephew Asahel was buried in Bethlehem in the sepulcher of his father.  Kings of the House of David are repeatedly refereed to as being buried in the City of David, and resting with their fathers.  Starting with David himself in 1 Kings 2:10 being buried with his father in the City of David (Acts 13:36 also says David was buried with his fathers).  And it turns out Bethlehem does have a site with a tradition of being where David was buried, the Church of St David adjacent to King David's Wells.  Or the Kings might have been among those buried in the Bronze Age caves built where modern Efrat is.  

The "Mount Zion" refereed to in the quoted materiel below refers to the Western Hill of modern Jerusalem, not Biblical Zion.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/David's_Tomb " In the 4th century CE, he and his father Jesse were believed to be buried in Bethlehem. The idea he was entombed on what was later called Mt Zion dates to the 9th century CE." Rabbi Dr. Ari Zivotofsky, 'Where is King David Really Buried?,' The Jewish Press, May 15th 2014.  "By the mid-fourth century, the tombs of King David and his father, Jesse, are described as being in Beit Lechem.[See Limor, “King David’s Tomb.”] The first mention of Mount Zion as King David’s final resting place was in the ninth century".  Back to Wikipedia  "4th century Pilgrim of Bordeaux reports that he discovered David to be buried in Bethlehem, in a vault that also contained the tombs of EzekielJesseSolomonJob, and Asaph, with those names carved into the tomb walls."...[Ora Limor, "The Origins of a Tradition: King David's Tomb on Mount Zion," Traditio 44 (1988): 459.] "Having initially revered David's tomb in Bethlehem, Muslims began to venerate it on Mount Zion instead but no earlier than the 10th century following the Christian (and possibly Jewish) lead. In the twelfth century, Jewish pilgrim Benjamin of Tudela recounted a somewhat fanciful tale of workmen accidentally discovering the tomb of David on Mount Zion."
Asahel was a maternal Nephew which makes the above argument not quite a slam dunk exactly.  But his father is never identified and all three of Zeruiah's children are called sons of Zeruiah rather then by their father.  That makes it possible they may have been born out of wedlock and so mostly treated as part of Jesse's family, and that the person called Asahel's father here was really his maternal grandfather.  Either way being buried in Bethlehem means, if it was his direct father he was buried with, he was one from the same city and so probably at least the same Tribe.  That David's nephews were so important to him means he may have insisted they be buried as part of the royal family.

Today the Church of St David associated with King David's Wells claims to be where David was buried.  But it's also said that the Mosque of Omar was built over where David and Solomon were buried.

In 2013 a burial ground near Bethlehem was discovered.

Luke Chapter 2 in verse 4 calls Bethlehem the City of David, and endless Christian commentaries try to explain why this doesn't contradict the Hebrew Bible's City of David being Jerusalem by saying both could be described that way.  Yet we're supposed to use Scripture to interpret Scripture, and Luke used the definite article, it's "The City" not "a city", there can be only one.  And Christians view the New Testament as revealing and clarifying the "Old Testament".

In Luke 2:11 the Angel tells the Shepherds that a Child was just born in The City of David, no other location identifying indicator is given, the Angel expected that to be enough.  Later in verse 15 they concluded from what the Angel said that the Baby is in Bethlehem with Jerusalem not even considered.  Clearly to them "The City of David" unambiguously meant Bethlehem with no alternative meaning worth discussing.

Saturday, December 2, 2023

Misconceptions about the Magi and the Census

 Matthew 2:1 clearly says.
Now when Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judaea in the days of Herod the king, behold, there came wise men from the east to Jerusalem
And yet today the notion is constantly being promoted that the Magi arrived 2 years later, or at least over a year.

The first argument presented for this is saying that Jesus was called a "child" not a "baby".  However the same Greek word translated "child" in Matthew 2:8, Luke uses in the same form in 2:17 to refer to the newborn Jesus on the day He was born.  And the form of the word used in Matthew 2:9 is used in Luke 2:21 of Jesus at his Circumcision.  So that whole argument is based on ignorance of the Greek.

That Herod ordered everyone under two years old to be killed was probably him grossly rounding up.  Matthew 2:16 clarifies Herod determined this from when they saw the Star.  And at the time Herod asked when they saw it they both may have thought the birth happened when they saw the star, but they were Human. 

God's inspired Word in Matthew 2:1 clearly and unambiguously synchronizes the Birth of Jesus to when the Magi arrived in Jerusalem, not when the Star was first seen.  God used the Star to bring them to where He wanted them when He wanted them.  And I think even if the Magi told Herod the King was probably born now not then, Herod would not have wanted to take a chance on it.

Matthew 2:8 says Herod told them to "search diligently" so he may have given them plenty of time before realizing he'd been snubbed. So I don't think the two year time frame in question cleanly begins or ends with the Birth of Jesus.

"You're placing the Presentation in The Temple between the Magi's Visit and Herod ordering the massacre" You may object. Herod wasn't always in Jerusalem, in fact most of the year he usually wasn't.  He may have been there when Jesus was born simply to be there for Hanukkah or whatever Holiday you think correlated to The Nativity.  So it's easily possible he wasn't there 40 days later when the Presentation happened.

Or maybe the language of Matthew 2:1 can allow the Magi to show up a little later, after the 40 days, but certainly not two years.  The Young's Literal Translation supports a reading like that.

But there is one last argument against The Magi arriving in Jerusalem when Jesus was born, and I saved that for last because I want to use it to transition into something else.

The other argument is that in Matthew 2 Jesus and His parents are living in a House not an Inn/Stable.  In the past I'd argued simply that a few days could be enough time for them to find better living quarters, as not everyone in Bethlehem when they first arrived was gonna stay there, some the Census may have been making travel even further.  But my views on that changed which I want to explain below.

The problem is much of how we picture the Birth of Jess is indeed not Biblical.  There is no Biblical account of them seeking room in an Inn and finding none.  Nor does it anywhere say He was born in a stable or a cave, that tradition comes from Christianized Rome wanting to make a cave for worshiping Adonis into a Church, thus we get the current Church of the Nativity.

The one occurrence of the word "inn" in the KJV of Luke 2:7 is mistranslated.  The Greek word is Katalumati.  The other two times it is used it is translated in the KJV "guestchamber".  It means a guest room of sorts usually located on the upper floor of a house.  It is used of the Upper Room of the Last Supper in Mark 14:14 and Luke 22:11, one of those is the same author as this verse.  In Luke 10:34-36 Luke uses a completely different Greek word for a commercial Inn, Pandoceion.

And this statement that there was no room in the Katalumati comes after Jesus is born not before, it's about where to place Him after being born.

Luke 2 also doesn't even say Jesus was born as soon as they arrived in Bethlehem.  Verses 1-5 tell us the Census brought them to Bethlehem, and then verse 6 says while they were there the time for Mary to give Birth came.   They could have been in Bethlehem for weeks or even months.  Which also addresses the common criticism of making Mary travel this far at a full 9 months.  I now think that she may well have been only 4 or 5 months pregnant when they traveled to Bethlehem.

Here is a decade and a half old article I found arguing much of what I've argued here, though some aspects of it I may disagree with. 
https://biblearchaeology.org/research/chronological-categories/new-testament-era/2803-the-manger-and-the-inn

Some theories about the nativity bring up a question of "how did the Shepherds know where in Bethlehem to look" something brought up for both the Migdal Eder theories and supporting the traditional site saying it was a famous rock formation that looked like a Manger.  However I don't think finding them was difficult because I think only one baby was born in that city that day and it was probably the talk of the town.

So there is in fact nothing in Luke's account to definitively contradict a theory that Jesus was born in a house that Joseph (or his family) owned.  Yet I myself was still clouded by these misconceptions when I made many previous Christmas relevant posts on my retired Prophecy Blog.  

It's possible there was no room in the guest chamber because others of the House of David were also staying there at this time.

Which is why I want to move on to the Census now.

When refuting the common assertion that a Roman census would never require such traveling on message boards I would copy/paste the following which I no longer remember where exactly I got it from.
First of all, lets look at a few early census accounts taken from history and see how they matchup with the Bible:

The following is a record of a census taken in the year 104 A.D. which contains similar wording to that found in the Gospel:

"From the Prefect of Egypt, Gaius Vibius Maximus. Being that the time has come for the house to house census, it is mandatory that
all men who are living outside of their districts return to their own homelands, that the census may be carried out."

Another census was uncovered from 48 A.D.which also records a return of the people to their native land for the census. It reads as follows:

"I Thermoutharion along with Apollonius, my guardian, pledge an oath to Tiberius Claudius Caesar that the preceding document gives an accurate account of those returning, who live in my household, and that there is no one else living with me, neither a foreigner, nor an Alexandrian, nor a freedman, nor a Roman citizen, nor an Egyptian. If I am telling the truth, may it be well with me, but if falsely, the reverse. In the ninth year of the reign of Tiberius Claudius Augustus Germanicus Emperor."

It is interesting to note that these two census accounts required a person to return to their homeland to be registered. The same is true of the Gospel account.
The response I got (that at the time I wasn't ready to respond to) was that the point of these was to bring land owners to where they owned their land, not the hometown of a distant ancestor from a thousand years ago.  (Another objection is that these were Egyptian customs, but it's logical to speculate that similar ones were done in neighboring provinces).

That notion seems inconsistent with the Nativity narrative only because of the extra-Biblical assumptions I just addressed.  The reason these Census instructions were needed is because clearly many people were living somewhere other then where they actually owned their property.

Remember, the word translated "Carpenter" in reference to Joseph could also very likely imply he was actually an Architect.  He may have been in Galilee because of a construction project, perhaps one of Herod's many.  And of course those insisting Nazareth is too young a city to be the Biblical one suggest it was at most brand new when Jesus was born.  Maybe Joseph was helping build Nazareth?  

This Census, (whichever one it was, I'll try to tackle that in the future), then required him to return home sooner then originally planned.

And if my argument that Bethlehem is "Zion, which is the City of David" is true. Then that adds a lot to the above observations.  As we now see that David's family never stopped being linked to Bethlehem after they became Royalty.

Now I've seen some argue that Nazareth not Bethlehem must be their hometown in Luke because of Luke 2:39.  Well Luke 2:3 says they are to return to their "own city", so if Luke 2:39 is calling Nazareth their "own City" in contrast to Bethlehem then you're not even dealing with an inconsistency with other sources but accusing Luke 2 of being inconsistent with itself.  Since no one accuses Luke of being garbled together from different authors like they do some other books, that option isn't really viable.  Luke 2:39 is simply about Nazareth becoming their new hometown after deciding to move there permanently, with Matthew 2 providing the reasons why this change in residence happened.  It may be that the English simply words this misleadingly.

Now this doesn't change that events of Matthew 1 take place while Mary and Joseph were in Nazareth even though Matthew doesn't mention Nazareth in that chapter.  But Matthew doesn't mention Bethlehem in that chapter either, Bethlehem is first mentioned in Matthew 2 when Jesus was born, and six to nine months separated the events of chapters 1 and 2.  In fact the way Bethlehem is specified in Matthew 2:1 could be taken as implying that's not where they were previously.

And it's still possible that Mary was indigenous to Nazareth.  Maybe Joseph met and courted her while in Nazareth on business.  Or maybe this arranged marriage is what first brought him there.  But the fact that Luke gives us the impression that the events of Matthew 1 didn't happen till three months into Mary's pregnancy makes the most sense if we presume Joseph was living in Bethlehem when the Annunciation and Visitation happened, and came to Nazareth for the wedding a few months later.

Friday, December 1, 2023

Almah and Virginity

It really does seem like the argument that Almah doesn’t mean Virgin begins and ends with the simple fact that there is another Hebrew word for Virgin, Bethulah and has little substance beyond that.

It is far from unheard of for a language to have more than one word that conveys the idea of Virginity, English has at least two, Virgin and Maiden, with Maiden often being used more poetically.  Modern English of course one can mock and dismiss as virtually a composite language with way more words then we actually need for lots of things.  However Japanese is a much more ancient and for a long time isolated language and so much more comparable to Hebrew in the size of its vocabulary.

Shojo is a Japanese word that means specifically Female Virgin and is thus also the word for Virginity.  It is sometimes confused with Shoujo, the Japanese word for Girl but the Kanji is different.  In that sense it is pretty equivalent to Bethulah since Bethulah is the Hebrew word for Virgin that the word for Virginity comes from, as well as Bethulah being possibly related to Bath the Hebrew word for Daughter.

Dotei is another Japanese word for virgin.  And I have read contradictory reports on if it is gender neutral or specifically means “male virgin”.  The existence of Shojo does mean that a gender neutral word would rarely be used of a female specifically.  Almah, unlike Bethulah, does have a grammatically masculine form, ‘elem, used in 1 Samuel 17:56 (of David at a time when as far we known he hadn't had sex yet) and 1 Samuel 20:22 where the KJV translated it as “strpling” and “young man”.  The Quran interestingly implies Mary was Trans Masculine and/or Intersex in Surah 3:36.

The idea that Almah just means “young woman” or “damsel” like the Japanese word Otome I can likewise respond to by pointing out there is another Hebrew word with that meaning, na’arah which can’t mean virgin since it’s used of Dinah after she is violated in Genesis 34:3.  And that is still separate from the standard Hebrew words for Girl, Woman and Female.

The poetic use of Almah in Proverbs 30:19 only really works if the word implies being a virgin.

There is another Japanese word that has been relevant to my speculations about Almah.  Miko is a Japanese word commonly translated as “Shrine Maiden”. Being a Miko never required a lifelong vow of chastity but it at least used to be that Mikos were required to be celibate while serving as a Miko.

The possibility that the Almah referred to some class of women in Ancient Israel who took a ceremonial vow of chastity I think is possible because of Psalm 68:25 and the Alamoth of Psalm 46 and 1 Chronicles 15:20.  And it may be the best way to explain the Almahs of the Song of Songs.  It’s also possibly related to the group of women Mariam the sister of Moses led in Exodus 15:20 who also played Timbrels, Mariam was called an Almah in Exodus 2:8.  There were also the Women who served at the entrance to the Tent of Meeting in Exodus 38:8 and 1 Samuel 2:22.  The Timbrel connection could also connect this subject to Judges 11:34.

Now there are other aspects of how the Christian view of Isaiah 7 is criticized, but today I just wanted to focus on the meaning of the word.

Friday, November 24, 2023

Hebrew Bible Support for The Incarnation.

I'll be basing all of this on only the Masoretic Hebrew Text, no Septuagint or Hellenistic apocryphal writings. And nothing from Christian translations Jews would object to. I'll be using this linked below Translation made by Jews. Rather then my usual KJV defaulting.
http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt0.htm

The objection to the Incarnation clearly isn't that it's something God can't do. Even Jewish interpretations of Scripture agree that "The Angel of The LORD" or "The Angel of God" is God taking a physical tangible Human looking form. The Word (Dabar in Hebrew) could be viewed that way also, like in Genesis 15 where the Dabar performs the Covenant ritual all on his own. The Angel who announces the conception of Samson is an example, and the Captain of The Host who appears to Joshua before The Battle of Jericho. Anytime an Angel accepts Worship and yet isn't evil or fallen that's clearly not an ordinary Angel but God Himself.

The very name of Israel comes from when Jacob wrestled with God. And in Genesis 18 everyone agrees the leader of the three Angels there is God himself talking with Abraham. And He actually eats food with Abraham and Sarah. That's a pretty physical tangible Human like form, I'd argue incarnating as a Human isn't that much greater a leap.

But again, it's not about what God can do but what he's willing to. Is actually becoming a Human simply too far beneath Him? Remember God made Adam in his own Image, Genesis 1:26. So really why assume incarnating as a Human is something he'd never do when Adam was modeled after himself to begin with?

Then there is the Hebrew word Go'el. That word is variously translated Kinsman, Redeemer, and Avenger/Revenger. The word means all of those things. It maybe does not necessarily literally have to mean a biological relative every time it's used, but the Kinsman aspect is important to it's function in the Mosaic Law. And is vital to understanding the Book of Ruth, where Boaz is the Kinsman Redeemer, being a near male relative of Naomi and Ruth's late husband.

The word is used of God in Isaiah 41:14 and 43:14 "Fear not, thou worm Jacob, and ye men of Israel; I help thee, saith the LORD, and thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel." Also in 44:6 and 24. And 47:4, 48:17, 49:7 and 26 and 54:5. And other Isaiah examples, also Jeremiah 50:34

Job said in 19:25 "But as for me, I know that my Redeemer liveth, and that He will witness at the last upon the dust". Also Psalms 19:14 and 78:35.

What about the Preexistence of The Messiah?

Micah 5 "out of thee shall one come forth unto Me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth are from of old, from ancient days." and Isaiah 9:5 "For a child is born unto us, a son is given unto us". Both verses even in Jewish translations imply a Preexistence.

Rapheal Patai is a Jewish scholar who agrees to the Preexistence of The Messiah "The concept of the preexistence of The Messiah accords with the general Talmudic view which holds that "The Holy One, blessed be He, prepares the remedy before the wound"", (The Messiah Texts pp. 16-17). Preexistence alone doesn't prove Divinity, but it makes him very special. Because while some cults believe we all had a preexistence like the Mormons, that view is entirely UnBiblical, from Genesis 2 "Then the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul." The Soul and Spirit are created at the same time The Body is.

The Messiah is David's Son/Descendant. Yet David calls him lord in Psalm 110 "The LORD saith unto my lord: 'Sit thou at My right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.'" Psalm 2 is also interesting. The Messiah appears to be relating how "the LORD said unto me: 'Thou art My son, this day have I begotten thee. Ask of Me, and I will give the nations for thine inheritance, and the ends of the earth for thy possession."

Psalm 45 is considered a Messianic Psalm, it explicitly refers to the King as God in verse 8, and says in verse 11 to Worship him.

The clincher however I believe is to look at Ezekiel 40-48's description of the coming Messianic Kingdom. How come this in depth description mentions no Palace where The Messiah Ben-David rules from? A great deal of the point of the Messianic Age is to fulfill the Davidic promise from II Samuel 7, that a Son of David would sit on David's Throne forever. And this promise is inherently linked to Jerusalem.

And yet Ezekiel in his in-depth description of The Messianic future geography and architecture of Israel, Jerusalem and The Temple mentions no dwelling place for The Messiah. The only Throne mentioned is in Ezekiel 43:7 in the Holy of Holies, no longer separated from The Holy Place by the Veil. Where The LORD tells Ezekiel "this is the place of My throne, and the place of the soles of My feet, where I will dwell in the midst of the children of Israel for ever; and the house of Israel shall no more defile My holy name".

 Here the LORD is saying he himself will rule. How can this be reconciled with the Davidic Promise? Clearly the Throne of David and the Throne of God have become the same Throne. And therefor God must incarnate as The Son of David, Son of Abraham, Son of Adam.

Ezekiel 40-48 does have references to a "Prince" (Nasi in the Hebrew). If the word for Prince here had been Sar or Nagyid then it could make sense to say he's The Messiah, but Nasi isn't a royal term, and could more accurately be translated President.  Ezekiel 34:23&24 and 37:24:25 explain that the Nasi is David himself Resurrected, not his Son who's The Messiah.

The LORD also enters through the Eastern Gate, just as The Messiah is supposed to do.

Add on top of that some interesting material from Zechariah 12-14. In 12:17 "In that day shall the LORD defend the inhabitants of Jerusalem; and he that stumbleth among them at that day shall be as David; and the house of David shall be as a godlike being, as the angel of the LORD before them."

 That verse is definitely translated differently in Christian translations, but even the way it's translated here is still pretty compelling. Also 14:9 "And the LORD shall be King over all the earth; in that day shall the LORD be One, and His name one." And in verse 16 "And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations that came against Jerusalem shall go up from year to year to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles."

Genesis 3:15's Seed of the Woman is viewed by Jews as being Humanity, and unlike many Christians I'm not going to object to that. It's relevance here is this crushing the head of the Serpent theme does come up again in the Hebrew Bible.  Psalms 74:12-14, 89:10, 91:13, Isaiah 27 and Isaiah 51:9.  And in those passages it is The LORD that crushes the heads of serpents.

In Genesis 3:20 Adam calls his Wife's name Eve because she is " the mother of all living".  Deuteronomy 5:22(verse 26 in other Bibles) calls YHWH the "Living God".  Meaning Eve through one of her many daughter has to become the Mother of God.