I've talked before about my issues with the fixation so many have on drawing a hard distinction between the different Greek words for Love. My lost post on that topic focusing on making Comparison to Japanese since I am somewhat of a Weeb.
But I've also noticed a trend among people who want to Argue actually taught in Greek that the New Testament's usage of more then one word for Love is further evidence of it's innate Greekness.
The New Testament doesn't even use all these Greek words for Love people obsess over, it only really uses three, Aqape, Philia and Xenia. But rather then seeing that as evidence that the New Testament is only using the Greek language to express fundamentally Semitic ideas, they insist Eros was excluded deliberately, which lies at the heart of why I dislike this obsession.
Stroge's absence from the New Testament can't be explained so ideologically however, familial love is definitely a theme in The New Testament. The only reason for none of these texts to use a word that specifically means that, is if they are regardless of what language they were first physically written down it at their core translating ideas first formed in a language without an equivalent single word. It appears as an element of some names, but so does Eros the word these puritanical Christians want to reject.
Xenia is used in The New Testament seemingly only ever as a word for a place of Lodging rather then a word for the abstract concept of Hospitality. Hospitality is definitely a New Testament as we see in Hebrews 13. and when Jesus agrees with Ezekiel 16 that Inhospitality was the Sin of Sodom. Hebrews 13 uses the compound word Xenophilia which is equivalent to the Hebrew term Hachnasat Orchim.
Biblical Hebrew meanwhile has more words for Love then Greek actually, meaning the New Testament's usage of only three of it's options shows the limits of Greek in expressing Hebrew ideas.
Ahabah and Ahab and Ohab are in the LXX interchangeably translated as both Agape and Eros, and I note again how the Song of Songs uses Agape not Eros, meaning it absolutely was applicable to Romantic/Sexual love in the minds of Ancient Greek speaking Jews.
Meanwhile there are also the words Hesed and Rachamim and Dodim. Rachamim is derived from the Hebrew word for Womb implying it was first thought of as an inherently Maternal kind of Love, making it's use for God's Love of Humanity quite interesting.
And one Hebrew word that doesn't come up right away when you google this topic is Agab/Egeb. In fact when you try to Google Agab or Egeb specifically now the darn AI continually assumes I'm just mis spelling something else, though the less common variant Agabah shows up just fine These words only seem to be used in negative context, as if they represent the more problematic meaning of Eros. But is used positively in Ezekiel 33:31-32. I would also argue Ezekiel 23:11 by specifying corrupt love is clearly implying Agabah is not inherently corrupt.
If I wanted to propose a theory that Agape was actually a Semitic loan word into Greek via Phoenician influence, Agabah is the Semitic word I would pick. There is other precedent for a B becoming a P during such processes. But since the variations of this word only appear in Jeremiah and Ezekiel perhaps you could argue they are foreign loan words into Hebrew.
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